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Are Run Expectancy innings divided by top and bottom?

0 votes
When calculating Run Expectancy, guidelines state that you calculate how many runs score "until the end of the inning". Does this mean that you tally all runs that score until the end of the inning, including both teams? E.g., a 0-out solo home run in the 1st inning includes every other run scored until the 2nd inning, regardless of team? Or, does it mean "every run scored until this team has completed their half-inning"?
asked Sep 18, 2012 in Sabermetrics by clayrichardson (7 points)

1 Answer

+1 vote
Half inning.
answered Sep 18, 2012 by James Gentile (2,000 points)