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Are BABIPs correct?

(7 posts)
  1. OlStubbleBeard
    Member

    I apologize if I'm missing something but there seems to be a discrepancy between the BABIP numbers on Baseball-Reference and here on Fangraphs both for this year and past years.

    Are they caluclated differently?

    Posted 6 months ago #
  2. OlStubbleBeard
    Member

    For example,

    Rich Harden on B-R '07 .254 '08 .252 '09 .270

    Harden on Fangraphs '07 .248 '08 .265 '09 .292

    Line drive rates also vary but I assume that data is more "subjective"

    Posted 6 months ago #
  3. David Appelman
    Founder

    For pitchers I use (H-HR)/(IP*2.82+H-SO-HR).

    It has like a .97 RSME for pitchers over 50 innings pitched, so it's going to be extremely similar. I think there's been more TBF data added for historical data recently, maybe it's time start calculating it the same as we would for batters.

    Posted 6 months ago #
  4. rileydog22
    Member

    Why 2.82 rather than 3?

    Posted 6 months ago #
  5. SoxScout
    Member

    rileydog22;4319 Why 2.82 rather than 3?

    Pretty sure it is to account for outs made on the bases and double-plays.

    Posted 5 months ago #
  6. j reed
    Member

    so where'd you'd get the 2.82. Is there a proof or something that show how this is derived

    Posted 3 months ago #
  7. JoeR43
    Member

    Why not just use the same formula for BABIP against as BABIP?

    Posted 1 month ago #
  8. tangotiger
    Member

    David already said:

    "I think there's been more TBF data added for historical data recently, maybe it's time start calculating it the same as we would for batters"

    Posted 1 month ago #

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